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Explain bond terms that depend on contingent events

CFA® Level I · Fixed Income · Fixed-Income Cash Flows and Types · FI.1.c

The idea

A call provision lets the issuer redeem early, which it will do when rates fall, so it caps the holder's upside and must be compensated with a higher yield. A put provision lets the holder sell back at a set price, which they will do when rates rise, so it protects the holder and commands a lower yield. A conversion provision lets the holder exchange the bond for equity, combining a bond's floor with equity participation. In every case the option belongs to one party, and its value moves the bond's price in that party's favour relative to an otherwise identical option-free bond.

A practice question

From the question bank, with the reason each wrong option is wrong.

Who holds the option in a callable bond?

  1. The issuer — correct
  2. The bondholderWhy not: The holder has *written* the option, not bought it. That is why a callable bond yields more than an option-free one.
  3. The trusteeWhy not: The trustee enforces the indenture on the holders' behalf and holds no economic rights of its own.

The issuer may redeem early, typically after rates have fallen. That right is valuable to the issuer and costly to the holder.

A harder one

Why does a putable bond yield less than an otherwise identical option-free bond?

  1. Because putable bonds have shorter maturitiesWhy not: The question stipulates an otherwise identical bond, so maturity is the same. The put may shorten the *effective* life, but that is a consequence of the option rather than a separate feature.
  2. Because the holder receives a valuable option and accepts a lower return for it — correct
  3. Because put provisions reduce credit risk to zeroWhy not: The put is exercised against the issuer, so it is only as good as the issuer's ability to pay. It offers no protection in a default.

The right to sell back at a floor price limits the holder's loss if rates rise. Investors pay for that protection through a lower yield.

The hardest tier

Why does a callable bond's price appreciate less than an option-free bond's when rates fall sharply?

  1. Because callable bonds have higher couponsWhy not: They often do, as part of the compensation for the option. But a higher coupon would make a bond *more* valuable, not cap its appreciation.
  2. Because the call provision expires when rates fallWhy not: Falling rates are precisely when the call becomes more likely to be exercised, not less.
  3. Because the price is compressed toward the call — correct

The issuer will redeem rather than let the bond rise further. This is negative convexity: the holder keeps the downside of rising rates but loses much of the upside of falling ones, which is exactly the asymmetry the higher yield compensates.

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